I have some questions for my Christian readers regarding the morality of slavery.
The Bible is not anti-slavery, and in fact has instructions for the moral treatment of slaves. I understand that this, as most theists have explained it to me, is because although slavery is wrong it was so ingrained in society that God could not have demanded its elimination at that point in history, and instead gave instructions to mitigate the damage it did.
Slavery was indeed eventually pretty much wiped out, and Christians sometimes point out that Christianity was behind much of the anti-slavery movement.
I’m going to go ahead and accept this for the sake of argument.
But at the same time God condemned homosexuality (at least male homosexuality) rather unambiguously. A great many Bible believers think that God destroyed a whole city because homosexuality was rampant. We don’t hear about widespread destruction raining down on slaveholders (unless the slaves in question were God’s chosen people, who were themselves slave owners).
Given all this, I have a few questions:
1) If homosexuality had been rampant among the Israelites (as slavery was), do you think God would have let it go for the time being for pragmatic reasons, or is it such a big sin that it had to be eliminated?
2) After Jesus, some 1,800 years passed before slavery as a government institution was eliminated. Doesn’t this imply that, even if God is anti-slavery, it isn’t a big priority?
3) If you don’t think that a practicing homosexual can go to Heaven, do you think that a practicing slave owner can go to heaven?
4) The big question (to me): do you personally feel that slave owning is not as onerous as homosexuality?
I’m honestly looking for answers to these questions from practicing Christians. Thank you for your help!